This is the only correct answer.

Sorry, I just assumed that you were being hostile for some reason.

“Look it up” is never a good argument. With that said, I understand what you mean now; Thank you.

1908 and 1940.

During this time populist policies that disrupted the owners were implemented and being implemented. As such, it is clear they weren’t in control of the country. Thus, it was not an oligarchy.

These are the easiest examples. Anyone who thinks it was always an oligarchy is simplifying history. Anyone who disputes that is a liar or an idiot.

I need you to define the word “oligarchy” and then show me that it applies using that specific definition.

Edit: the point is that if you actually define the term as “a polity that’s controlled by a small number of people” (that is, the definition) it’s easy to show the above comment is just a lie.

“To prevent violent uprising of the proletariat” are you actively trying to phrase it to make it sound like even when someone does something good it was actually bad?

proven

Please explain. I don’t disagree with the conclusion, but this supporting statement doesn’t ring true to me.

I guess Teddy Roosevelt and FDR never existed.

The people saying “always has been” have really short memories or’ve forgotten about the Roosevelt administrations.

There is a decent argument to be made that the USA is a de-facto oligarchy. However, it’s a de-jure liberal democracy and Constitutional Republic for the time being.

Make product worse

Demand more money

Lose revenue

SurprisedPikachu.bmp

Lenin was a power hungry tyrant that over threw a left-wing government to install himself as an autocrat.