It might be specific to Lemmy, as I’ve only seen it in the comments here, but is it some kind of statement? It can’t possibly be easier than just writing “th”? And in many comments I see “th” and “þ” being used interchangeably.
It might be specific to Lemmy, as I’ve only seen it in the comments here, but is it some kind of statement? It can’t possibly be easier than just writing “th”? And in many comments I see “th” and “þ” being used interchangeably.
Yes, but people also don’t generally speak today like they did back then, either.
They were used interchangeably in Beowolf, for example.
See this answer with plenty of authoritative references:
https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/a/31881